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 ok. I wasn't arguing on this point, just asking a follow up. I also want to understand the thinking that leads to this. Because it doesn't make sense to me. 
 I see. The best is to look the theorem itself and the proof that accompanies it. In a nutshell, there is a surplus value created by the production procedure, and that whole surplus value ends up only in the pocket of the business owner. I hope that i am not confusing you, i am not really good on explaining things.