I think that makes sense. But it seems like - and please correct me if if I’m wrong - you are equating “money printing” to inflation in consumer prices and I’m not sure that there’s a direct causation between those two things. (Money printing meaning, in part, the increase in the M2 money supply). At least that was my understanding from Jeff Snyder when he described inflation versus “money printing” and the Eurodollar. Are you familiar with his framework for inflation, the macroeconomy, and the Eurodollar?