Thanks for this.

I’m familiar with (essentially) the three levels of law:

1. Equitable (what’s fair and right)
2. Common (God given)
3. Contract (what we agree to)

I’m in the process of moving from the public to the private with our business; via private express trust functioning as a UBO/PMA.

My question as it pertains to real estate I guess is this:

We are looking to buy a home in the coming Months.

This would be via a private seller who will hold the “mortgage” (note).

Seller has already offered some initial terms such as they would hold the note at 7% interest with a certain amount down payment.

In a perfect world I want that 7% to be simple interest (not amortized). I think that is merely a matter of us clarifying that with seller.

Likewise I think we can just do a private bill of sale with seller having a lien on the property (as the “mortgage”).

I assume the home is listed with the county register and property taxes are being paid by the current owner.

Once we purchase (via bill of sale with lien) the home, isn’t there steps we have to (are supposed to) take with the county to record the transaction?

Or is this where you are saying, in lieu of recording the sale with the county we send an affidavit attesting we as the new owners do not contract with the county?

Lastly, I do know if we have our trust be the owner of the property (do the transaction with the seller instead of us personally) we should be able to just record with the county an internal private transaction ID number but leave the details of which property was acquired inside the trust’s transaction records (thus keeping it private instead of public)…is that enough to eliminate the property taxes?