1. It's not "half of productive people's earnings," for most people it's all of the earnings and a continual rate of any savings or property. If you're rich enough to be experiencing earnings for yourself, wouldn't that mean you're on the gaining side of the wealth inequality line, instead of the wealth level where most of your cohort would be doing productive work?

2. Why am I supposed to give a fuck about you being "oppressed" when I never see any posts from you about the 2 million people walled into Gaza?