One question you might consider pursuing objectively, is, "were any of the land seizures just? Was there jus ad bellum (justice in going to war) and has there been jus in bellus (justice in its conduct)? In war (jus in bellus) there is never one side that is blameless and another that is fully to be blamed (I'm looking at you, Treaty of Verseilles). But to the question of how and why the war started...that's where I think we can see clear injustice and on only one side.

I appreciate your careful stance either way. And thank you for posting.